Explore topic-wise MCQs in IBPS SO.

This section includes 45 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your IBPS SO knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The Two factor theory of motivation was given by-?

A. D. McClelland
B. V Vroom
C. P. Drucker
D. F. Herzberg
E. D McGregor
Answer» E. D McGregor
2.

David McClelland’s model of motivation is based on three types of needs. Which of the following is a part of it?

A. Need for affliction
B. Need for affiliation
C. Need for love and affection
D. Need for motivation
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Need for love and affection
3.

The main idea of McClelland’s Need based theory is-?

A. Needs are learned and acquired by the people from their environment.
B. Needs are intrinsic to an individual and not acquired.
C. Some needs are active while most are latent and need external stimuli.
D. Needs can be transformed from one to another based on the individual’s life stage.
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Needs are intrinsic to an individual and not acquired.
4.

Which of the following is NOT a part of Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy theory?

A. Safety and security needs
B. Psychological needs
C. Self Actualization needs
D. Self esteem needs
E. Belonging and love
Answer» C. Self Actualization needs
5.

Which of the following is an example of Self-Actualization as per the Needs theory?

A. An aspiring painter taking classes
B. An MBA graduate working at a salary less than his peers
C. A musician making music
D. A villager moving from the village to city
E. None of the above
Answer» D. A villager moving from the village to city
6.

Which of the following methods is the most important while deciding transfers and promotions of employees in the Government Sector?

A. Checklist method
B. Confidential Report System
C. Paired Comparison
D. Essay Appraisal Method
E. Grading Method
Answer» C. Paired Comparison
7.

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the Critical Incidents Method?

A. Negative incidents may be more noticeable than positive incidents.
B. The supervisors have a tendency to unload a series of complaints about incidents during an annual performance review session.
C. It results in very close supervision which may not be liked by the employee.
D. The recording of incidents may be a chore for the manager concerned, who may be too busy or forget to do it.
E. All of the above
Answer» F.
8.

One of the issues with the Forced Distribution Method of performance appraisal is ?

A. The parameters on which to rate employees may be misunderstood.
B. It leads to rating employees on the higher side
C. It leads to error with respect to grading
D. It is a very time consuming method
E. None of the above
Answer» B. It leads to rating employees on the higher side
9.

The forced choice method was developed by?

A. Cary Cooper
B. Edwin Filippo
C. J P Guliford
D. Henri Fayol
E. Elton Mayo
Answer» D. Henri Fayol
10.

Which of the following is an advantage of the Ranking method of performance appraisal?

A. It is easy comparing individuals possessing different traits.
B. This is suitable for both group performance as well as relative performance.
C. It is easier to rank a large group with this method.
D. It is easier to rank the best and worst employee.
E. There is an absence of systematic procedure for ranking individuals.
Answer» E. There is an absence of systematic procedure for ranking individuals.
11.

Which level of jobs is best suited to being measured by objective criteria of performance appraisal? I. Lower level II. Middle level III. Top management

A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Only III
12.

Which of the following is an objective source to measure actual performance during the performance appraisal process?

A. Opinions
B. Ratings by superiors
C. Socio cultural contribution
D. Accidents in a given period
E. All are objective
Answer» E. All are objective
13.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the Performance Appraisal process?

A. Taking corrective action
B. Communicating set standards
C. Assigning of scales to each standard
D. Establishing performance standards
E. Measuring the actual performance
Answer» D. Establishing performance standards
14.

Which of the following is/are objectives of performance appraisal? I. It is used to validate hiring decisions. II. It aids in manpower planning. III. It is used to assess the employee and aid in promotion decisions.

A. Only II
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only I and III
E. All of the above
Answer» F.
15.

____________ refers to degree of accomplishment of the tasks and is measured in terms of results.

A. Performance
B. Potential
C. Quality
D. Efficiency
E. Productivity
Answer» B. Potential
16.

If an employee is to carry out a completely different set of responsibilities, which of the following needs to be carried out?

A. Performance appraisal
B. Potential Appraisal
C. Peer review
D. Past Performance
E. Career planning
Answer» C. Peer review
17.

Which of the following is true about Human resource management? I. The motivator is utilizing human resources in an efficient manner. II. It is a proactive function. III. The role of management is transformational in nature.

A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only II and III
E. All of the above
Answer» F.
18.

Which of the following is true about Personnel Management? I. The motivating factor here is improvement in performance. II. The aim is to develop the culture of the organization and the organization itself. III. It strictly adheres to the tenets of the contract.

A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
E. All of the above
Answer» D. Only II and III
19.

Which of the following is true about Personnel Management? I. It is a maintenance oriented function. II. The emphasis is on higher needs to motivate the employees. III. It is reactive in nature.

A. Only I
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and II
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Only II and III
20.

Which of the following does not come under the ambit of HRD?

A. Recruitment and selection
B. Training and development
C. Performance appraisal
D. Performance counseling
E. All are correct
Answer» F.
21.

Which of the following is a traditional method to measuring employee performance?

A. Management by objectives
B. BARS
C. 360 degree appraisal
D. Critical incidents method
E. Cost Accounting method
Answer» E. Cost Accounting method
22.

Which of the following is part of the social security net for employees in India?

A. Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
B. Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923
C. Employee State Insurance Act, 1948
D. Maternity Benefit Act,1961
E. All are correct.
Answer» F.
23.

Which of the following is a part of ‘Workforce Planning’?

A. Impact of turnover on future workforce.
B. Reason for employees leaving.
C. Retaining best talent
D. Sources of employing best people.
E. Most effective ways of training
Answer» B. Reason for employees leaving.
24.

Which of the following is an organizational objective of HRM?

A. To be socially responsible to the needs and challenges of society.
B. Minimize the negative impact of challenges upon the organization.
C. To assist employees in achieving their personal goals.
D. HRM is not an end in itself and the department exists to serve the organization.
E. To maintain the contribution at a level appropriate to the organisation's needs.
Answer» E. To maintain the contribution at a level appropriate to the organisation's needs.
25.

Which of the following is not a part of the organizing function in HRM process?

A. Giving each member a specific task
B. Counseling the employees
C. Delegating authority to the members
D. Establishing departments and divisions
E. Creating a system to coordinate the works of the members
Answer» C. Delegating authority to the members
26.

Which of the following is referred to as the father of personnel management?

A. Elton Mayo
B. Robert Owen
C. John H Patterson
D. Daniel Bell
E. None of the above
Answer» C. John H Patterson
27.

The Hawthorne Studies measured the relationship between which of the following variables?

A. Work Life Balance and stress levels
B. Training and efficiency
C. Welfare and work environment
D. Human productivity and work environment
E. Performance and Appraisal
Answer» E. Performance and Appraisal
28.

The definition: ‘Human Resource Management as “planning, organizing, directing, controlling of procurement, development, compensation, integration , maintenance and separation of human resources to the end that individual, organizational and social objectives are achieved.’ Was coined by –

A. Edwin Flippo
B. Decenzo and Robbins
C. Philip Kotler
D. N Murthy
E. None of the above
Answer» B. Decenzo and Robbins
29.

Which of the following is the most important objective of human resource management?

A. Minimize the role of human by replacing them with machines.
B. Teach humans how to deal with stress in workplace.
C. Ensure people are kept busy in the organization.
D. Ensure people have the requisite judgment skills before hiring them.
E. Proper utilization of available skilled workforce.
Answer» F.
30.

Which of the following is not one of the Ms of Management?

A. Men
B. Money
C. Matter
D. Machines
E. Methods
Answer» D. Machines
31.

Efficiency can be defined as-

A. Minimum benefit with maximum effort.
B. Maximum benefit with some effort.
C. Maximum benefit with minimum effort.
D. Most benefit with much effort.
E. Minimum benefit with minimum effort.
Answer» D. Most benefit with much effort.
32.

Which of the following goals is considered to be most important in Human Resource Development?

A. Social Goals
B. Individual Goals
C. Group Goals
D. Organizational Goals
E. Training goals
Answer» E. Training goals
33.

The term Human Resource Development was coined by whom of the following?

A. Leonard Nadler, 1969
B. Patricia Mclagan, 1983
C. T V Rao, 1974
D. Udai Pareek, 1988
E. M McLean, 1965
Answer» B. Patricia Mclagan, 1983
34.

Which of the following is Human Resource Development usually associated with? I. People II. Processes III. Skills IV. Training

A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I, III and IV
D. Only II, III and IV
E. All of the above
Answer» D. Only II, III and IV
35.

Which of the following best described human resource development?

A. It involves re-skilling of an employee to make him suitable for the new role.
B. It revolves around better management of human resources to achieve organizational objectives.
C. It involves aiding employees in develop skills that enhance their effectiveness.
D. It is another name for using humans instead of machines to ensure optimum employment in the economy.
E. None of the above
Answer» D. It is another name for using humans instead of machines to ensure optimum employment in the economy.
36.

For companies covered under the Gratuity Act, this benefit is paid when an employee completes five or more years of service with the employer.

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Eight
E. Ten
Answer» C. Six
37.

Which of the following is/are changes brought about in the Workmen’s Compensation (Amendment) Bill, 2009?

A. The term ‘employee’ was substituted with ‘workman’.
B. It increases the requirement of the minimum number of people to be employed for the Act to apply to them.
C. The Bill increases the compensation to employees in case of injury or death.
D. The Bill allows the state government to revise the monthly wage from time to time.
E. All are correct.
Answer» D. The Bill allows the state government to revise the monthly wage from time to time.
38.

What is the major objective of the Workmen’s compensation Act 1923?

A. To pay workers in case of accidents due to employment.
B. To ensure employers pay a minimum wage to employees.
C. It specifies the various components of pay that employees are supposed to receive.
D. It guarantees a minimum safety net and makes the employer responsible for the same.
E. None of the above
Answer» B. To ensure employers pay a minimum wage to employees.
39.

Which of the following is NOT dealt with in the Factories Act 1948?

A. Health
B. Welfare
C. Safety
D. Lockouts
E. Hazardous process
Answer» E. Hazardous process
40.

Which of the following Articles pertaining to Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution of India are relevant to the Factories Act 1948?

A. Article 42
B. Article 43
C. Article 43A
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above
Answer» F.
41.

The full form of BARS (used in performance appraisal) is –

A. Behaviorally Anchored Ratings Scales
B. Behavioral Arbitrary Ratings Subject
C. Behavior Anomaly Records Standards
D. Behavioral Anchor Rates Statistics
E. Behaviorally Anchored Rated Score
Answer» B. Behavioral Arbitrary Ratings Subject
42.

Which of the following is a limitation of the checklist method of performance appraisal? I. It is a time consuming method. II. It suffers from the halo effect (bias). III. It is an expensive method. IV. The weights assigned may be biased in favor of negative questions or vice versa.

A. Only II and III
B. Only I, III and IV
C. Only II, III and IV
D. Only I, II and III
E. All of the above
Answer» C. Only II, III and IV
43.

Which of the following is/are true of performance appraisal using the critical incident technique? I. It is objective and avoids recency bias. II. It is mostly used for evaluation of superiors more than peers or subordinates. III. The recorded events comprise of major incidents during the period being considered.

A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only II and III
E. All of the above
Answer» F.
44.

Which of the following /are advantage/s of performance appraisal using the essay method? I. It can be used as only a standalone technique. II. It provides a lot of information about the employee. III. It gives a list of traits the employee is supposed to have.

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III
E. None of the above
Answer» C. Only II and III
45.

Which of the following is/are drawback/s of performance appraisal using a Confidential Report? I. It is descriptive in nature. II. It follows a subjective appraisal system. III. There is no feedback offered to the employee. IV. It is based on old data pertaining to past performance.

A. Only II and IV
B. Only II and III
C. Only II, III and IV
D. Only I, III and IV
E. All of the above
Answer» C. Only II, III and IV