Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

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1.

The confession made by the accused is relevant to—

A. done on behalf of the person in authority, unless in the presence of a magistrate
B. done to a police officer, unless done in the presence of a magistrate
C. made by a magistrate but a police officer is present
D. which is done when the person is in the custody of a police officer and in the physical presence of a Magistrate.
Answer» C. made by a magistrate but a police officer is present
2.

A, after committing an offence, goes to a police officer, confesses and gives other information, A is charged with an offence, this confession—

A. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 25 के कारण उसके विरूद्ध साबित नहीं की जा सकती है।
B. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 27 के कारण उसके विरूद्ध साबित की जा सकती है।
C. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 25 के कारण उसके विरूद्ध साबित की जा सकती है
D. Being voluntary, it cannot be proved against him.
Answer» B. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 27 के कारण उसके विरूद्ध साबित की जा सकती है।
3.

Any confession made by an accused person shall be admissible in evidence against him if he:

A. in writing to a police officer
B. A police employee is made in the physical presence of a magistrate
C. The literacy is done in the presence of the magistrate while in the custody of the police
D. While in police custody, the village chief has been
Answer» D. While in police custody, the village chief has been
4.

Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act provides for a confession made by an accused when he-

A. in jail
B. in police custody
C. in illegal custody
D. in court
Answer» C. in illegal custody
5.

'A' is prosecuted for the murder of 'B', 'A' confesses to the crime before the police officer and then tells the magistrate 'I told the police officer that I killed 'B' ' This statement-

A. is insistent
B. Graha is
C. the prerogative of the court
D. neither of the above
Answer» B. Graha is
6.

Which of the following is not a claim as evidence?

A. Death declaration
B. expert opinion
C. Foreign decisions
D. confession made to the police
Answer» E.
7.

In which section of the Indian Evidence Act is the provision relating to confessions made before a police officer?

A. धारा 24
B. धारा 25
C. धारा 26
D. धारा 27
Answer» C. धारा 26
8.

Which one of the following sections of the Evidence Act states that a confession made by inducement, threat or promise is not relevant?

A. धारा 25
B. धारा 26
C. धारा 27
D. none of the above
Answer» E.
9.

Which of the following forward judgment is related to the sanction before the person in authority?

A. Ramesh Chandra Mehta Vs State of West Bengal
B. Pyarelal Bhargava vs State of Rajasthan
C. Queen Impress vs Babulal
D. Sitaram Vs State
Answer» C. Queen Impress vs Babulal
10.

When would a relevant confession be inconsistent?

A. when the police officer
B. When made under a promise to keep secret
C. When the accused was intoxicated
D. when the intervention was done as a result of
Answer» B. When made under a promise to keep secret
11.

Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, the confession given before the police is not admissible?

A. धारा 25
B. धारा 27
C. धारा 41
D. धारा 17
Answer» B. धारा 27
12.

The confession of the accused is inconsistent and inadmissible-

A. in the custody of a police officer but in the physical presence of a magistrate
B. on being made before a magistrate who told him that if he made a full confession, he would be released
C. when he was intoxicated
D. In police custody, if it guides the discovery of a fact
Answer» C. when he was intoxicated
13.

Confession in criminal proceedings is inconsistent with-

A. When it is done by inducement
B. When it is made by threat or promise
C. (both a and B
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
14.

The following provision of the Indian Evidence Act provides for oral admissions in respect of the contents of electronic records:

A. धारा 20
B. धारा 23
C. धारा 22-A
D. धारा 22-B
Answer» D. धारा 22-B
15.

Oral admissions as to the contents of a document are relevant when-

A. The party proposing to prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents of such document
B. The document presented is indisputable
C. not fully compatible
D. none is true
Answer» B. The document presented is indisputable
16.

The definition of confession is given in the Evidence Act,

A. धारा 19 में
B. धारा 20 में
C. धारा 21 में
D. none of these
Answer» E.
17.

Which of the following sections in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with criminal cases?

A. धारा 23
B. धारा 27
C. धारा 53
D. धारा 133
Answer» B. धारा 27
18.

Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals only with civil matters?

A. धारा 23
B. धारा 27
C. धारा 53
D. धारा 133
Answer» B. धारा 27
19.

Acceptance made without prejudice shall not amount to evidence, section of the Evidence Act

A. 23 के प्रावधान के कारण
B. 22 के प्रावधान के कारण
C. 24 के प्रावधान के कारण
D. 21 के प्रावधान के कारण
Answer» B. 22 के प्रावधान के कारण
20.

The question between 'a' and 'b' is whether such a deed is forged or not. 'A' affirms that it is genuine, 'B' affirms that it is forged—

A. A statement by 'B' that the deed is genuine can be proved by 'A' and 'A' may prove a statement by 'A' that the deed is forged.
B. A statement by 'A' that the deed is forged may be proved by 'A' and any statement by 'A' that the deed is genuine may prove by 'B'.
C. 'A' can prove his statement that the deed is genuine
D. 'B' can prove his statement that the deed is forged
Answer» B. A statement by 'A' that the deed is forged may be proved by 'A' and any statement by 'A' that the deed is genuine may prove by 'B'.
21.

An acceptance is relevant on behalf of and in favor of the acceptor when such acceptance-

A. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम 1872 की धारा 18 में आती है।
B. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम 1872 की धारा 31 में आती है।
C. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम 1872 की धारा 21 में आती है।
D. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम 1872 की धारा 20 में आती है।
Answer» D. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम 1872 की धारा 20 में आती है।
22.

In which section of the Indian Evidence Act has it been laid down that acceptance under certain circumstances can be proved by or on behalf of the person making it?

A. धारा 18
B. धारा 19
C. धारा 20
D. धारा 21
Answer» E.
23.

When can a person prove his own statement constituting his acceptance or when such statement can be proved on his behalf?

A. When it is relevant as a dying statement
B. When it is consistent as acceptance
C. When it is relevant as a sanction
D. When it is accepted verbally only in respect of the contents of the electronic record
Answer» B. When it is consistent as acceptance
24.

Sanction was defined by the Privy Council as-

A. मिर्जा अकबर ब. एम्परर AIR 1940 PC 176
B. क्वीन एम्प्रेस ब. अब्दुल्ला (1885) All 385(FB)
C. पाकला नारायण सवामी ब.AIR 1939 PC 47
D. पुलुकुरी कौट्टेया ब. एमपरर AIR 1947 PC 67
Answer» D. पुलुकुरी कौट्टेया ब. एमपरर AIR 1947 PC 67
25.

The general rule is that the acceptance is proved against the acceptor. Which one of the following provisions of the Evidence Act gives an exception to the above rule?

A. धारा 17
B. धारा 18
C. धारा 21
D. धारा 32
Answer» D. धारा 32
26.

The question is whether the horse sold by 'A' to 'B' was healthy, at the time of the transaction 'A' told 'B' that 'C' had complete knowledge of the horse and 'C' in respect of 'B' horse In this situation, which of the following statements is false.

A. The statement of 'A' about the horse can be accepted.
B. The statement of 'C' regarding the horse cannot be accepted.
C. The statement of A's employee regarding the horse cannot be accepted.
D. all of them are wrong
Answer» E.
27.

Which of the following four statements are correct?

A. Acknowledgments are statements made only by the parties to a proceeding.
B. Confessions are only statements made by the accused
C. Acceptances are only statements made by a party to civil proceedings.
D. Acceptances include statements made by persons whose position is to be proved against any party to a suit.
Answer» E.
28.

Approvals are binding on the performer in so far as they are concerned

A. by fact
B. by law
C. both from law and fact
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer» B. by law
29.

Acceptance is a statement-

A. Oral
B. documentary
C. contained in electronic form
D. all of the above
Answer» E.
30.

Who can make acceptance under the Indian Evidence Act?

A. witness in the proceedings
B. parties to the proceedings
C. another party
D. Court
Answer» C. another party
31.

Which of the following section has been amended by the Indian Technology Act 2000?

A. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 6 में
B. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 17 में
C. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 32 में
D. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 41 में
Answer» C. भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 32 में
32.

Which one of the following statements regarding 'admitment' under section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act is not correct?

A. Acceptance operates as a waiver of evidence
B. Acceptance is a statement that is necessarily contrary to one's own interest.
C. A statement which presupposes a questionable or relevant fact may be admitted
D. It is generally immaterial to whom the acceptance is made.
Answer» C. A statement which presupposes a questionable or relevant fact may be admitted
33.

Approvals-

A. must be in writing
B. must be oral
C. can be both written or oral
D. must be both written and oral
Answer» D. must be both written and oral
34.

Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act accepts-

A. only a verbal statement
B. only a documentary statement
C. Statements presented in oral, documentary or electronic form
D. oral or documentary statement
Answer» D. oral or documentary statement
35.

Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act allows—

A. धारा 17
B. धारा 18
C. धारा 19
D. धारा 20
Answer» B. धारा 18
36.

Match the following and select the correct code- List-I--------------------List-II (IAS Act)----(Relevant Facts) A. Section 7------------------1. Reason for relevant facts B. Section 8----------------- ----2.Facts inconsistent with relevant factsC.Section 11---------3.Causes relevant to factsD.Section 14--------- ---------4.Fact showing any condition of the body

A. A--B--C--Dn1--2--3--4
B. A--B--C--Dn3--1--2--4
C. A--B--C--Dn3--4--1--2
D. A--B--C--Dn4--3--2--1
Answer» C. A--B--C--Dn3--4--1--2
37.

The question is whether A received a specific letter. The fact that the letter was put in the mail in due course and it was not returned by the dispatch center again—

A. not compatible
B. is inconsistent
C. are consistent
D. none of these
Answer» D. none of these
38.

Under which of the following section is the previous conviction of a person relevant in the Indian Evidence Act?

A. धारा 14 स्पष्टीकरण I
B. धारा 14 सपष्टीकरण II
C. धारा 15
D. धारा 16
Answer» C. धारा 15
39.

Which of the following sections of the Evidence Act defines 'admitted'?

A. धारा 24
B. धारा 31
C. धारा 17
D. धारा 23
Answer» D. धारा 23
40.

In which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act is prior conviction relevant?

A. धारा 14 स्पष्टीकरणI में
B. धारा 14 स्पष्टीकरण IIमें
C. धारा 14 स्पष्टीकरणIII में
D. धारा 14 स्पष्टीकरण IV में
Answer» C. धारा 14 स्पष्टीकरणIII में
41.

Sues B for negligence which B caused by giving him a reasonably unused vehicle, which caused injury to A. The fact that and in respect of the vehicles which he used to hire, was practically neglectful:

A. are consistent
B. is inconsistent
C. is neither consistent nor inconsistent
D. consistent and inconsistent
Answer» C. is neither consistent nor inconsistent
42.

'A' is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing it to be stolen. It is proved that there was a specific stolen item in his possession. According to which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the fact that there were at that time many other stolen articles in his possession is relevant, being in the nature of showing that every one and all of the things in his possession About what did he know he had stolen?

A. धारा 13
B. धारा 14
C. धारा 15
D. धारा 16
Answer» C. धारा 15
43.

'A' is being tried for murder because of 'B''s death by intentional act (shooting). The fact that 'A' was a practitioner of sitting on people with the intention of killing them-

A. are consistent
B. is inconsistent
C. graham is
D. neither of the above
Answer» C. graham is
44.

'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an imputation with intent to harm the reputation of 'A'. The fact that A has made previous publications about B showing the animosity of A towards B is relevant—

A. Because it is necessary to justify the disputed fact
B. It is necessary for the clarification of the disputed fact
C. It proves intent to harm the reputation of 'B'
D. it is the result of a relevant fact
Answer» D. it is the result of a relevant fact
45.

'A' died because of 'B'' negligent driving. Which of the following facts are relevant in the aftermath of compensation against 'B'.

A. यह तथ्य कि 'अ' एक 30 वर्ष का नवयुवक था
B. The fact that 'A' was a young man in good health
C. The fact that 'A' PCS (j) was qualified in the examination of
D. The fact that 'B' was accustomed to negligently burning the car
Answer» E.
46.

'X' sues 'Y' for damages caused by 'Y''s dog who knew 'Y' to be violent. The fact that in the past also the dog of 'Y' had bitten 'A', 'B' and 'C'-

A. are consistent
B. is inconsistent
C. is insistent
D. is incredible
Answer» B. is inconsistent
47.

'A' is accused of receiving ex-gratia goods knowing it to be theft. The above illustration is:

A. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 8 का
B. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 12 का
C. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की धारा 14 का
D. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की घारा 13 का
Answer» D. साक्ष्य अधिनियम की घारा 13 का
48.

'A' is accused of receiving stolen goods which he knows to be theft. It was proved that he was in his possession of a particular item of theft. The fact that at the same time he was in possession of several other stolen articles-

A. not compatible
B. are consistent
C. neither consistent nor inconsistent
D. Graham is not
Answer» C. neither consistent nor inconsistent
49.

Which of the following is not described as showing mental state under section 14 of the Evidence Act, 1872?

A. Malice
B. Purpose
C. Harmony
D. Ignore
Answer» C. Harmony
50.

State of 'mind' used under section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act reveals-

A. to mean
B. Of knowledge
C. Of harmony
D. All this
Answer» E.