Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

With reference to circumstantial evidence - 1. The circumstances in respect of which the inference is drawn must be fully proved 2. The circumstances must be conclusive in nature 3. The facts so established must be in conformity with the hypothesis of guilt and in conformity with innocence 4. The circumstances should, to a moral certainty, exclude the possibility of guilt of a person other than the accused. Select the correct answer using the code given below-

A. 1 तथा 2 केवल
B. 1,2 तथा 4 केवल
C. 1,2 तथा 3 केवल
D. 1,2,3 तथा 4
Answer» C. 1,2 तथा 3 केवल
2.

Which of the following is not a document under the Indian Evidence Act?

A. inscription
B. A photograph
C. Printout of a message sent from a mobile or computer
D. Knife recovered by the police from an accused who has been presented as evidence in the court.
Answer» E.
3.

An illiterate milkman makes a sign every day on the wall of his customer's house for his memory. The symbols made daily by milk can be proved by-

A. as documentary evidence
B. as circumstantial evidence
C. as oral evidence
D. as evidence
Answer» B. as circumstantial evidence
4.

Inscription on metal plate or rock-

A. is a fact
B. is a document
C. have an opinion
D. there is a reason
Answer» C. have an opinion
5.

Which of the following does not come within the meaning of the worddocumentunder the Indian Evidence Act?

A. Article
B. Map
C. telephone conversation
D. photographic words
Answer» D. photographic words
6.

The electronic record presented for the inspection of the court under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is-

A. electronic evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. oral evidence
D. modern evidence
Answer» C. oral evidence
7.

Which of the following is not a document-

A. photographed
B. Map
C. engraved on metal plate
D. oral evidence
Answer» E.
8.

In which year electronic evidence was included as documentary evidence in the Indian Evidence Act?

A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2000
D. 1999
Answer» D. 1999
9.

'A' is accused of the death of 'B'. Which one of the following facts cannot be a disputed fact in his trial.

A. 'A' strikes B with intent to kill him
B. 'B' was not an educated person
C. 'B' provokes A
D. 'क' की आयु 12 वर्ष से कम थी तथा वह अपने कृत्य का परिणाम नहीं समझता था
Answer» C. 'B' provokes A
10.

'A' is accused of killing 'B'. Which of the following is not a 'dispute fact' at trial?

A. That 'A' caused the death of 'B'
B. That 'A' intended to cause the death of 'B'
C. that 'A' was a man of good character
D. That 'A' had received a serious and sudden provocation from 'B'
Answer» D. That 'A' had received a serious and sudden provocation from 'B'
11.

Which of the following is a 'document'?

A. Satire
B. radio broadcast
C. abuse
D. phone conversation
Answer» B. radio broadcast
12.

affidavit to court

A. Evidence is not.
B. Evidence is.
C. There is only one written statement.
D. There is a proof.
Answer» B. Evidence is.
13.

From which date electronic records have been included in Section 3 of the Evidence Act?

A. 17 अक्टूबर, 2000
B. 10 अक्टूबर 2000
C. 2 अक्टूबर, 2000
D. 14 नवंबर, 2000
Answer» B. 10 अक्टूबर 2000
14.

A person has some reputation. this is a-

A. Fact
B. other than fact, condition
C. not facts
D. an idea that cannot be a fact
Answer» B. other than fact, condition
15.

'A' is accused of killing 'B'. Which of the following may be conflicting facts at his trial? 1. A killed B. 2. A is an honest person. 3. A receives a serious and sudden provocation from B 4. 'A' was rewarded for social services. Select the correct answer-

A. 1 तथा 2
B. 1 तथा 3
C. 1,2 तथा 3
D. 1,2,3 तथा 4
Answer» C. 1,2 तथा 3
16.

The facts alleged by one party in a suit and disclaimed by the opposite party are called-

A. negative facts
B. relevant facts
C. conflicting facts
D. positive facts
Answer» D. positive facts
17.

Such substances are arranged in a certain order in such a place-

A. is a fact
B. have an opinion
C. is a document
D. there is a reason
Answer» B. have an opinion
18.

Any mental condition of which any person is aware of-

A. not fact
B. fact is
C. a condition other than fact
D. not a fact but a state of mind
Answer» C. a condition other than fact
19.

Any such thing, state of things or relation of things which are perceptible by the senses-

A. is an evidence
B. fact is
C. conflicting fact
D. none of the above
Answer» C. conflicting fact
20.

Insert List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below- List-I ------------------- List-IIA.Document- ------------1.Section 3B.Primary Evidence-------2.Section 62C.Secondary Evidence-------3.Section 63D.Oral Evidence---- ----4. section 60

A. A--B--C--Dn2--3--1--4
B. A--B--C--Dn1--2--3--4
C. A--B--C--Dn3--2--1--4
D. A--B--C--Dn2--1--4--3
Answer» C. A--B--C--Dn3--2--1--4
21.

Which of the following is a 'fact'?

A. Sohan saw a cow
B. Mohan Le Sohan asked to leave
C. Sheetal has great respect
D. all these
Answer» E.
22.

Which one of the following words is not defined under section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act?

A. Court
B. Document
C. evidence
D. Acceptance
Answer» E.
23.

Which of the following is not correct with respect to the words defined in section 3 of the Act?

A. 'Fact' includes not only physical facts but also psychological facts.
B. 'Court' includes arbitrators.
C. The inscriptions on the rock are 'documents'.
D. A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved.
Answer» C. The inscriptions on the rock are 'documents'.
24.

The Indian Evidence Act is not used in the proceedings before whom?

A. before the judge
B. with magistrate
C. a person legally authorized to take evidence
D. before the mediator
Answer» E.
25.

The word court as defined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not include-

A. presiding officer of labor court
B. Tehsildar
C. mediator
D. Commissioner appointed by the Civil Court
Answer» D. Commissioner appointed by the Civil Court
26.

Which of the following is a fact?

A. said green
B. Mohan saw
C. Ram lied
D. all these
Answer» E.
27.

The term 'Court' used in the Indian Evidence Act means-

A. all judges
B. all magistrates
C. All other than arbitrators who are legally authorized to take evidence
D. All of the above
Answer» E.
28.

'Court' under section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act does not include-

A. judge
B. magistrate
C. mediator
D. district judge
Answer» D. district judge
29.

Which of the following does not come under the word court in the Indian Evidence Act?

A. all judges
B. legally authorized to take evidence
C. city ​​magistrate
D. mediator
Answer» E.
30.

How many chapters and sections are there in the Indian Evidence Act?

A. 164 धारायें एवं 10 अध्याय
B. 167 धारायें एवं 10 अध्याय
C. 167 धारायें एवं 11 अध्याय
D. 167 धारायें एवं 9 अध्याय
Answer» D. 167 धारायें एवं 9 अध्याय
31.

Select the incorrect statement using the code given below- 1. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator. 2. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to proceedings before a commissioner appointed by the court to take evidence. 3. The Evidence Act applies to affidavits presented before the court. 4. The Indian Evidence Act is to be held before all types of army courts. applicable to judicial proceedings.

A. 2 एवं 3 गलत हैं।
B. 2,3 एवं 4 गलत हैं।
C. 1 एवं 3 गलत हैं।
D. None of the above is wrong.
Answer» C. 1 एवं 3 गलत हैं।
32.

Which one of the following is not included in the definition of the term 'Court' under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. judge
B. magistrate
C. mediator
D. All persons legally authorized to take evidence
Answer» D. All persons legally authorized to take evidence
33.

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to-

A. on the proceedings of the administrative agency
B. on arbitration proceedings
C. on contempt proceedings
D. neither of the above
Answer» D. neither of the above
34.

In the Indian Evidence Act total-

A. 11 अध्याय, 167 धाराएं हैं
B. 11 अध्याय, 2 अनुसूची हैं
C. 11 अध्याय, 197 धाराएं हैं
D. 156 धाराएं, 3 अनुसूची हैं
Answer» B. 11 अध्याय, 2 अनुसूची हैं
35.

Which of the following 'law' is considered as the basis of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The law of the place at which the act or offense was committed.
B. The law of the place where the investigation or investigation was carried out.
C. The method of the place where the parties found their solution.
D. The law of the place where the proceedings in a case are to be taken.(lex fori).
Answer» E.
36.

The object of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, according to the Preamble is-

A. Define and modify the method of evidence
B. To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
C. Disclosure, Definition and Consolidation of Law of Evidence
D. Disclose, consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
Answer» C. Disclosure, Definition and Consolidation of Law of Evidence
37.

Method of evidence-

A. has retrospective effect
B. affects the fundamental rights of the individual
C. always has a forward-looking effect
D. not a procedural method
Answer» B. affects the fundamental rights of the individual
38.

Evidence method is

A. lex talnis
B. Lex Lossi Solusnis
C. lex forie
D. Lakes Sits
Answer» D. Lakes Sits
39.

The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is-

A. fundamental law
B. process method
C. Fundamental and Process Method
D. none of the above
Answer» C. Fundamental and Process Method
40.

What type of law is the Evidence Act?

A. substantive method
B. only natural method
C. procedural method only
D. both a and c
Answer» D. both a and c
41.

Evidence Act is-

A. basic method
B. procedural
C. only natural method
D. all of the above
Answer» C. only natural method
42.

Indian Evidence Act came into force

A. 1 सितम्बर, 1872
B. 1 अक्टूबर, 1872
C. 1 जुलाई, 1872
D. neither of the above
Answer» B. 1 अक्टूबर, 1872
43.

Which of the following is the correct date of coming into force of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872-

A. 15 मार्च,1872
B. 1 सितंबर,1872
C. 1 जुलाई, 1872
D. 1 फरवरी, 1872
Answer» C. 1 जुलाई, 1872
44.

According to the Preamble of the Indian Evidence Act 1872, the purpose of this Act is-

A. Providing, Defining and Amending the Law of Evidence
B. Providing and consolidating evidence law
C. Defining and amending the Law of Evidence
D. Consolidation, Defining and Amending the Law of Evidence
Answer» E.
45.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Evidence Act?

A. The Bill of the Act was drafted by Sir Henry Maine.
B. The Bill of the Act was drafted by Sir James Stephen.
C. The bill of the Act was prepared by the Second Law Commission.
D. none of the above
Answer» C. The bill of the Act was prepared by the Second Law Commission.
46.

India Evidence Act does not apply to-

A. On affidavits presented before the court
B. on proceedings before the arbitrator
C. (both a and B
D. on judicial proceedings before the court
Answer» D. on judicial proceedings before the court
47.

As per section 1 of the Evidence Act, the date of coming into force of the Act was-

A. 15 मार्च, 1872
B. 1 सितम्बर, 1872
C. 15 सितम्बर, 1872
D. 1 अक्टूबर, 1872
Answer» C. 15 सितम्बर, 1872
48.

The Bill of Evidence Act was prepared by-

A. Fourth Law Commission
B. Sir Henry Maine
C. By Sir James Stephen
D. neither of the above
Answer» D. neither of the above
49.

The Transfer of Property Act has nothing to do with-

A. by air
B. by water
C. front light
D. from all these
Answer» E.
50.

'A' buys immovable property on behalf of 'B' unauthorized by 'B', which is reported to be delinquent. Later 'B' ratifies the purchase, and pays the price. In these circumstances, the law holds that—

A. 'A' was B's agent from the very beginning
B. 'A' was not the agent of B from the beginning
C. Knowledge of 'A' cannot be imposed on B
D. none of the above
Answer» B. 'A' was not the agent of B from the beginning