200950 + Mcqs in General McqOptions

1.	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:List - I --------------- List - II(a) Agathocles --------------- (i) Buddha(b) Kadphises I --------------- (ii) Samkarshana(c) Vimakadphises --------------- (iii) Atash(d) Kanishka I --------------- (iv) ShivaCodes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
A.	(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B.	(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
C.	(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
D.	(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer» B. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Discussion

2.	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:List - I (a) Digha Nikaya (b) Khuddaka Nikaya (c) Vinayapitaka (d) Abhidhammapitaka List - II(i) Dhammapada(ii) Mahaparinibbana sutta(iii) Kathavastu(iv) KhandhakaCodes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A.	(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B.	(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
C.	(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D.	(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer» B. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Discussion

3.	'Indica' of Megasthenes was preserved in later Greek accounts. Which one of the following Greek travellers' account is not associated with 'Indica'?
A.	Ktesius
B.	Strabo
C.	Arrian
D.	Pliny
Answer» B. Strabo

Discussion

4.	Which one of the following administrative structure in ascending order is correct?
A.	Dronamukha, Sthaniya, Samgrahana, Karvatika
B.	Sthaniya, Karvatika, Dronamukha, Samgrahana
C.	Sthaniya, Dronamukha, Karvatika, Samgrahana
D.	Sthaniya, Dronamukha, Samgrahana, Karvatika
Answer» D. Sthaniya, Dronamukha, Samgrahana, Karvatika

Discussion

5.	Which one of the following evidence is not the correct evidence of Ramagupta in later period?
A.	Manasollasa of Someshwara
B.	Shankararya's commentary on Harshcharita
C.	Majmat-ul-Tawarikh of Abul Hasan Ali
D.	Sanjan Tamrapatra of Amoghvarsha
Answer» B. Shankararya's commentary on Harshcharita

Discussion

6.	What is the correct chronological order of the following?(a) The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea(b) Cosmos Indikopleustes(c) Geography of Ptolemy(d) Indica of MegasthenesChoose the answer from the codes given below:
A.	(a) (b) (c) (d)
B.	(a) (c) (d) (b)
C.	(d) (a) (c) (b)
D.	(c) (d) (a) (b)
Answer» D. (c) (d) (a) (b)

Discussion

7.	Which one of the following pairs does not match?
A.	Negotiable instrument– A piece of paper
B.	Negotiability– Acquisition of property by one's own conduct
C.	Nemo dat quod nonhabet– Negotiable instruments
D.	Negotiable instrument– Transfer by simple delivery
Answer» D. Negotiable instrument– Transfer by simple delivery

Discussion

8.	Role of doctrine of ultra vires is
A.	to fight virus of ultras.
B.	to protect indoor managers.
C.	to confine corporate action within fixed limits.
D.	to protect directors for exercising their implied authority.
Answer» D. to protect directors for exercising their implied authority.

Discussion

9.	Directors are
A.	only agents of a company.
B.	only fiduciaries of a company.
C.	only servants of a company under a contract of employment with the company.
D.	All of the above.
Answer» E.

Discussion

10.	Registration of a firm is
A.	Mandatory
B.	Not compulsory
C.	Desirable
D.	Of no use
Answer» C. Desirable

Discussion

11.	Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:List - I (a) Sarai Khola (b) Tarkhanwaladera (c) Kunal (d) Shikarpur List - II(i) Haryana(ii) Pakistan(iii) Rajasthan(iv) Gujarat Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A.	(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
B.	(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C.	(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
D.	(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer» B. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Discussion

12.	Which one of the following is not a libel?
A.	A defamatory statement in print
B.	A cinematographic film
C.	Pictures
D.	Sounds or gestures
Answer» E.

Discussion

13.	For an action of nuisance defendant can put up the following defences.1. The place is suitable for the purpose.2. It is for the benefit of the residents of colony.3. It is done under statutory authority.4. Plaintiff has consented to the act.Select the right code.Codes:
A.	1, 2 and 3 are correct.
B.	2, 3 and 4 are correct.
C.	1, 3 and 4 are correct.
D.	3 and 4 are correct.
Answer» E.

Discussion

14.	ortious liability arises from breach of duty, primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damagesThis definition is given by
A.	Winfield
B.	Salmond
C.	Flemmings
D.	Goodheart
Answer» B. Salmond

Discussion

15.	Which of the following statements is true? Select using the codes given below:1. Words prima facie innocent may also turn out to be defamatory.2. The plaintiff must explain the hidden defamatory meaning assigned to otherwise innocent looking statement.3. The plaintiff must show how these words relate to him.4. Words prima facie innocent cannot be defamatory.Codes:
A.	Only 1 and 2 are correct.
B.	1, 2 and 3 are correct.
C.	1 and 4 are correct.
D.	Only 4 is correct.
Answer» C. 1 and 4 are correct.

Discussion

16.	In an action for the tort of negligence, what is not required to be proved by the plaintiff is that
A.	there is damage
B.	duty-situation arises
C.	breach of duty owed to some one
D.	breach of duty owed to the plaintiff
Answer» D. breach of duty owed to the plaintiff

Discussion

17.	In which of the following cases the jurisprudential basis of the principle to award compensation for violating Human-rights has been laid down by the Supreme Court?
A.	Visakha Vs. State of Rajasthan.
B.	Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India.
C.	Ratlam Municipality Vs Vardhichand.
D.	Nilabhati Behra Vs. State of Orissa.
Answer» E.

Discussion

18.	Section 19 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides protection to
A.	Army only
B.	Police only
C.	Navy only
D.	All of the above
Answer» B. Police only

Discussion

19.	Assertion (AS): Every partner may attend diligently to his duties in the conduct of business.Reason (R): Every partner must be intelligent.Codes:
A.	Both (AS) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (AS).
B.	Both (AS) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (AS).
C.	(AS) is true, but (R) is false.
D.	Both (AS) and (R) are false.
Answer» E.

Discussion

20.	The rule currently followed in India to determine remoteness of damages was laid down in
A.	Re Polemis case
B.	Overseas Tankship (U.K.) Ltd. V. Morts Dock Engg. Co. Ltd.
C.	Liesbosch Dredger V. S.S. Edison
D.	Smith V. London and South Western Rly. Co.
Answer» C. Liesbosch Dredger V. S.S. Edison

Discussion

21.	ou are a human being. You have rights inherent in that reality. You have dignity and worth that exists prior to law.This is the statement of
A.	Bhagwati, J
B.	Lyn Beth Neylon
C.	Kofi Annan
D.	None of the above
Answer» C. Kofi Annan

Discussion

22.	‘No one shall be subjected to arbitrary asset or detention.' Under which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, this right has been declared?
A.	Article 5
B.	Article 7
C.	Article 8
D.	Article 9
Answer» E.

Discussion

23.	Dower in Muslim Law isI. DowryII. An obligation imposed upon husband as a mark of respect for wife.III. Sale price of woman.IV. Consideration for marriage.Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:Codes:
A.	I, III and IV are correct.
B.	II and III are correct.
C.	II and IV are correct.
D.	I and III are correct.
Answer» D. I and III are correct.

Discussion

24.	The movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum after ______.
A.	American War of Independence.
B.	Second World War
C.	Atlantic Charter, 1941
D.	The European Convention on Human Rights, 1950
Answer» C. Atlantic Charter, 1941

Discussion

25.	The following period was designated by the United Nations as the UN Decade for Human Rights Education?
A.	1995 - 2004
B.	1982 – 1991
C.	1998 – 2007
D.	2001 – 2010
Answer» B. 1982 – 1991

Discussion

26.	ingle Act of adulteryis a ground for
A.	Judicial Separation
B.	Divorce
C.	Divorce and Judicial Separation both
D.	None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above

Discussion

27.	In which of the following case the question of constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, came for consideration for the first time?
A.	Saroja Rani V. Sundarshan Kumar
B.	Bipin Chandra V. Prabhavati
C.	Savitry Pandey V. Premchandra Pandey
D.	Lachman V. Meena
Answer» B. Bipin Chandra V. Prabhavati

Discussion

28.	Legal effects of recognition are(i) Recognised State can sue in municipal courts of recognizing State.(ii) Recognised State can claim possession of property situated within jurisdiction of the recognizing State which formerly belonged to preceding government.(iii) The recognized State becomes entitled to claim sovereign immunity from being impleaded in the municipal courts of the recognizing State.(iv) The recognized State acquires the capacity to enter into diplomatic relations with other States and to conclude treaties with them.Codes:
A.	(i) only
B.	(i) and (ii) only
C.	(i), (ii) and (iii) only
D.	(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer» E.

Discussion

29.	Assertion (AS): Custom is a rule of conduct, obligatory on part of those who are within its sphere, established by long usage and practice.Reason (R): Rule of conduct are obligatory in any established sphere.Codes:
A.	Both (AS) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (AS).
B.	Both (AS) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (AS).
C.	(AS) is true, but (R) is false.
D.	(AS) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer» C. (AS) is true, but (R) is false.

Discussion

30.	Under Section 19 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition in a Matrimonial case has to be filed at the place
A.	where the respondent, at the time of the presentation of the petition, resides.
B.	where the parties to the marriage last resided together.
C.	in case the wife is the petitioner, where she is residing on the date of presentation of the petition.
D.	All the above.
Answer» E.

Discussion

31.	Which one of the following is not condition with regard to the persons who may be adopted, under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?
A.	He or she must be a Hindu.
B.	He or she must has not already been adopted.
C.	He or she must consent to adoption.
D.	He or she must has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is custom.
Answer» D. He or she must has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is custom.

Discussion

32.	The Central or State Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is required to meet at least
A.	every one month
B.	every two months
C.	every three months
D.	every six months
Answer» D. every six months

Discussion

33.	Theprecautionary principleand thepolluter pays principleare part of the Environmental Law of our country.
A.	True
B.	False
C.	Partly true and partly false
D.	None
Answer» B. False

Discussion

34.	Taj Trapezium case is between
A.	Indian Council for Enviro- Legal Action Vs. Union of India, 1996 3 SCC 212
B.	Ramji Patel Vs Nagarik Upbhokta Marg Darshak Manch, 2000 3 SCC 29
C.	Vineet Kumar Mathur Vs. Union of India, 1996 7 SCC 714
D.	M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1997 2 SCC 353
Answer» E.

Discussion

35.	The increased noise level can cause loss of hearing and irreversible changes in nervous system. Mention the Safe Noise Level fixed by the World Health Organisation.
A.	80 decibels
B.	90 decibels
C.	60 decibels
D.	45 decibels
Answer» E.

Discussion

36.	A police officer arrested a person without warrant who was drunk and creating disturbance in a public street. The action of police amounts to ______.
A.	Detention
B.	Wrongful confinement
C.	Wrongful restrain
D.	None of them
Answer» C. Wrongful restrain

Discussion

37.	The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 shall have precedence over other laws and therefore, the provisions of the Act shall have effect despite the inconsistency with the provisions of any other enactment. However it is subject to
A.	The Mines Act, 1952
B.	Atomic Energy Act, 1962
C.	The Factories Act, 1948
D.	None of the above
Answer» C. The Factories Act, 1948

Discussion

38.	In which of the offences the actual commission of offence is not punished but it's attempt is punished?
A.	When the execution of murder falls short.
B.	Causing miscarriage.
C.	Suicide.
D.	Exposure with intention to abandon the child.
Answer» D. Exposure with intention to abandon the child.

Discussion

39.	Administration of unwholesome drug is strictly punishable under law even though it may not cause hurt. Under what provision of law punishment can be inflicted?
A.	Section 324
B.	Section 328
C.	Section 326
D.	All of the above
Answer» C. Section 326

Discussion

40.	In order to attract application of Sec.304-B of Indian Penal Code it is essential that the death has occurred within _______.
A.	Seven years but as engagement is part of marriage the period of limitation should be counted from that date.
B.	Actual death should have occurred within seven years of her marriage.
C.	Actual cruelty should have been for demand of dowry whether or not death resulted after seven years of marriage.
D.	Depends upon possibility to ruling out an accidental death within the period of seven years.
Answer» C. Actual cruelty should have been for demand of dowry whether or not death resulted after seven years of marriage.

Discussion

41.	The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on
A.	Public policy
B.	Failure to supervise
C.	Treated as unauthorised
D.	Strict liability
Answer» B. Failure to supervise

Discussion

42.	An offender claiming exemption of criminal liability under Section 84 of Indian Penal Code must be incapable of knowing
A.	the nature of the act
B.	the act was contrary to law
C.	the act was wrong
D.	All of the above
Answer» E.

Discussion

43.	There is no right of private defence against an act done, by any person under the direction of a public servant but is subjected to fulfilment of certain condition like
A.	the act must be done in good faith.
B.	the direction was not strictly justifiable by law.
C.	The directed act has not been generated reasonable apprehension of death.
D.	All of the above.
Answer» E.

Discussion

44.	The Indian Penal Code makes a broad distinction between principal wrong doer and an abettor and does not recognize the accessory except in case of harboring when
A.	Instigating a person to commit an offence.
B.	Engaging in a conspiracy to commit an offence.
C.	Intentionally aiding a person to commit an offence.
D.	None of the above.
Answer» E.

Discussion

45.	The interest theory of legal right is propounded by
A.	Durkein
B.	Dicey
C.	Paton
D.	Ihering
Answer» E.

Discussion

46.	Assertion (AS): Ownership subject to condition subsequent is vested ownership.Reason (R): Possession and ownership do not differ in their mode of acquisition.Codes:
A.	Both (AS) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (AS).
B.	Both (AS) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (AS).
C.	(AS) is true, but (R) is false.
D.	(AS) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer» D. (AS) is false, but (R) is true.

Discussion

47.	The physical element of possession is also called as
A.	Ratio decidendi
B.	Corpus decidendi
C.	Corpus possessionis
D.	Animus possidendi
Answer» D. Animus possidendi

Discussion

48.	Writ of Quo Warranto can be issued
A.	against any person.
B.	against public officer, who wish to assume the office.
C.	against public officer, who is holding public office.
D.	against public officer, who has ceased to hold the office.
Answer» D. against public officer, who has ceased to hold the office.

Discussion

49.	onstitutional law is concerned with the organization and functions of government at rest, while administrative law, is concerned with that organization and those functions in motion.This statement was given by
A.	Austin
B.	Salmond
C.	M.P. Jain
D.	None of the above
Answer» E.

Discussion

50.	Writ of Mandamus may be issued to
A.	Compel the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities only to act.
B.	Compel the authority to act.
C.	Compel the authority, how to act.
D.	Compel a private person.
Answer» C. Compel the authority, how to act.

Discussion

Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:List - I (a) Digha Nikaya (b) Khuddaka Nikaya (c) Vinayapitaka (d) Abhidhammapitaka List - II(i) Dhammapada(ii) Mahaparinibbana sutta(iii) Kathavastu(iv) KhandhakaCodes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

'Indica' of Megasthenes was preserved in later Greek accounts. Which one of the following Greek travellers' account is not associated with 'Indica'?

Which one of the following administrative structure in ascending order is correct?

Which one of the following evidence is not the correct evidence of Ramagupta in later period?

What is the correct chronological order of the following?(a) The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea(b) Cosmos Indikopleustes(c) Geography of Ptolemy(d) Indica of MegasthenesChoose the answer from the codes given below:

Which one of the following pairs does not match?

Role of doctrine of ultra vires is

Directors are

Registration of a firm is

Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:List - I (a) Sarai Khola (b) Tarkhanwaladera (c) Kunal (d) Shikarpur List - II(i) Haryana(ii) Pakistan(iii) Rajasthan(iv) Gujarat Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Which one of the following is not a libel?

For an action of nuisance defendant can put up the following defences.1. The place is suitable for the purpose.2. It is for the benefit of the residents of colony.3. It is done under statutory authority.4. Plaintiff has consented to the act.Select the right code.Codes:

ortious liability arises from breach of duty, primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damagesThis definition is given by

In an action for the tort of negligence, what is not required to be proved by the plaintiff is that

In which of the following cases the jurisprudential basis of the principle to award compensation for violating Human-rights has been laid down by the Supreme Court?

Section 19 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides protection to

Assertion (AS): Every partner may attend diligently to his duties in the conduct of business.Reason (R): Every partner must be intelligent.Codes:

The rule currently followed in India to determine remoteness of damages was laid down in

ou are a human being. You have rights inherent in that reality. You have dignity and worth that exists prior to law.This is the statement of

‘No one shall be subjected to arbitrary asset or detention.' Under which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, this right has been declared?

Dower in Muslim Law isI. DowryII. An obligation imposed upon husband as a mark of respect for wife.III. Sale price of woman.IV. Consideration for marriage.Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:Codes:

The movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum after ______.

The following period was designated by the United Nations as the UN Decade for Human Rights Education?

ingle Act of adulteryis a ground for

In which of the following case the question of constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, came for consideration for the first time?

Assertion (AS): Custom is a rule of conduct, obligatory on part of those who are within its sphere, established by long usage and practice.Reason (R): Rule of conduct are obligatory in any established sphere.Codes:

Under Section 19 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition in a Matrimonial case has to be filed at the place

Which one of the following is not condition with regard to the persons who may be adopted, under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?

The Central or State Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is required to meet at least

Theprecautionary principleand thepolluter pays principleare part of the Environmental Law of our country.

Taj Trapezium case is between

The increased noise level can cause loss of hearing and irreversible changes in nervous system. Mention the Safe Noise Level fixed by the World Health Organisation.

A police officer arrested a person without warrant who was drunk and creating disturbance in a public street. The action of police amounts to ______.

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 shall have precedence over other laws and therefore, the provisions of the Act shall have effect despite the inconsistency with the provisions of any other enactment. However it is subject to

In which of the offences the actual commission of offence is not punished but it's attempt is punished?

Administration of unwholesome drug is strictly punishable under law even though it may not cause hurt. Under what provision of law punishment can be inflicted?

In order to attract application of Sec.304-B of Indian Penal Code it is essential that the death has occurred within _______.

The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on

An offender claiming exemption of criminal liability under Section 84 of Indian Penal Code must be incapable of knowing

There is no right of private defence against an act done, by any person under the direction of a public servant but is subjected to fulfilment of certain condition like

The Indian Penal Code makes a broad distinction between principal wrong doer and an abettor and does not recognize the accessory except in case of harboring when

The interest theory of legal right is propounded by

Assertion (AS): Ownership subject to condition subsequent is vested ownership.Reason (R): Possession and ownership do not differ in their mode of acquisition.Codes:

The physical element of possession is also called as

Writ of Quo Warranto can be issued

onstitutional law is concerned with the organization and functions of government at rest, while administrative law, is concerned with that organization and those functions in motion.This statement was given by

Writ of Mandamus may be issued to