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MCQOPTIONS
This section includes 2460 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Advanced Machining knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 751. |
What is hebb’s rule of learning |
| A. | the system learns from its past mistakes |
| B. | the system recalls previous reference inputs & respective ideal outputs |
| C. | the strength of neural connection get modified accordingly |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. none of the mentioned | |
| 752. |
The cell body of neuron can be analogous to what mathamatical operation? |
| A. | summing |
| B. | differentiator |
| C. | integrator |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. differentiator | |
| 753. |
The gas fired pit furnace is used for tempering and normalizing. |
| A. | True |
| B. | False |
| Answer» B. False | |
| 754. |
The gas pit fire furnace is fired with gun powder. |
| A. | True |
| B. | False |
| Answer» C. | |
| 755. |
Large compositional change occurs in the charge while using the Gas pit furnace. |
| A. | True |
| B. | False |
| Answer» B. False | |
| 756. |
High atmosphere circulation is attained in a pit furnace. |
| A. | True |
| B. | False |
| Answer» B. False | |
| 757. |
Non-defective term has the same meaning as Nonconforming. |
| A. | True |
| B. | False |
| Answer» C. | |
| 758. |
Which of these is true? |
| A. | \(n=(\frac{L}{\delta})^2 p(1-p)\) |
| B. | \(n=(\frac{L}{\delta})^2 p(1-np)\) |
| C. | \(n=(\frac{L}{\delta})^2 (1-p)\) |
| D. | \(n=(\frac{L}{\delta})^2 p(1+p)\) |
| Answer» B. \(n=(\frac{L}{\delta})^2 p(1-np)\) | |
| 759. |
If δ is the magnitude of the process shift, n must specify __________ |
| A. | \(\delta=nL\sqrt{\frac{pn(1-p)}{n}}\) |
| B. | \(\delta=nL\sqrt{\frac{p(n-p)}{n}}\) |
| C. | \(\delta=L\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}\) |
| D. | \(\delta=L\sqrt{\frac{np(1-np)}{n}}\) |
| Answer» D. \(\delta=L\sqrt{\frac{np(1-np)}{n}}\) | |
| 760. |
Which of these is not one of the parameters which need to be specified for fraction nonconforming control charts? |
| A. | Sample Size |
| B. | Frequency of sampling |
| C. | Width of control limits |
| D. | Units to be produced |
| Answer» E. | |
| 761. |
The control limits for p-chart found from the use of estimated unknown fraction non conforming, are regarded as __________ |
| A. | Final limits |
| B. | Concluded limits |
| C. | Trial limits |
| D. | Absolute limits |
| Answer» D. Absolute limits | |
| 762. |
If the sample size for a p-chart is 50 and the value for the center line of the chart is 0.2313, what will be the value of the LCL of the chart? |
| A. | 0.4108 |
| B. | 0.0524 |
| C. | 0.0762 |
| D. | 0.0389 |
| Answer» C. 0.0762 | |
| 763. |
Even if the process is in control according to p-chart and the fraction nonconforming is too high, it states that _________ |
| A. | The process is not stable |
| B. | The process is stable but there are no operator controllable problems |
| C. | The process is stable but there are some operator controllable problems |
| D. | The process is out of control |
| Answer» C. The process is stable but there are some operator controllable problems | |
| 764. |
The UCL for any p chart, when the standard values are not given, for 3 sigma limits, is written as ____ |
| A. | UCL=\(\bar{p}+\sqrt[3]{\frac{\bar{p}(1+\bar{p})}{n}}\) |
| B. | UCL=\(\bar{p} – \sqrt{\frac{\bar{p}(1-\bar{p})}{n}}\) |
| C. | UCL=\(\bar{p}+\sqrt[3]{\frac{\bar{p}(1-\bar{p})}{n}}\) |
| D. | UCL=\(\bar{p}-\sqrt[3]{\frac{\bar{p}(1-\bar{p})}{n}}\) |
| Answer» D. UCL=\(\bar{p}-\sqrt[3]{\frac{\bar{p}(1-\bar{p})}{n}}\) | |
| 765. |
LCL for any p chart when the standard values are given are ________ |
| A. | LCL=\(p+\sqrt[3]{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}\) |
| B. | LCL=\(p+3 \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}\) |
| C. | LCL=\(p-3\sqrt[3]{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}\) |
| D. | LCL=\(p-\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}\) |
| Answer» E. | |
| 766. |
The value of L=3 in the genera model of control limits for a Shewhart control chart, explains ____________ |
| A. | There are 3 sigma limits taken |
| B. | There are 3 quality characteristics |
| C. | There are 6 quality characteristics |
| D. | There are 6 sigma limits taken |
| Answer» B. There are 3 quality characteristics | |
| 767. |
Which of these gives a correct equation for the general model for Shewhart control chart for a “w” quality characteristic statistic? |
| A. | UCL = μw + Lσw |
| B. | UCL = μw – Lσw |
| C. | LCL = μw + Lσw |
| D. | LCL = μw + σw |
| Answer» B. UCL = μw – Lσw | |
| 768. |
Which of the following is the IaaS service provider? |
| A. | EC2 |
| B. | EC1 |
| C. | EC10 |
| D. | Hybrid |
| Answer» B. EC1 | |
| 769. |
CaaS stands for _____________ as service. |
| A. | Compliance |
| B. | Computer |
| C. | Community |
| D. | Communication |
| Answer» E. | |
| 770. |
The three different service models are together known as the _____ model of cloud computing. |
| A. | SPI |
| B. | SIP |
| C. | CPI |
| D. | All of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. SIP | |
| 771. |
How many types of service model are mainly present in Cloud? |
| A. | 1 |
| B. | 2 |
| C. | 3 |
| D. | 4 |
| Answer» D. 4 | |
| 772. |
_______ is a complete operating environment with applications, management, and user interface. |
| A. | IaaS |
| B. | SaaS |
| C. | PaaS |
| D. | All of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. PaaS | |
| 773. |
Which of the following provides development frameworks and control structures? |
| A. | IaaS |
| B. | SaaS |
| C. | PaaS |
| D. | All of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. All of the mentioned | |
| 774. |
_______ provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other hardware assets. |
| A. | IaaS |
| B. | SaaS |
| C. | PaaS |
| D. | All of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. SaaS | |
| 775. |
Which of the following is owned by an organization selling cloud services? |
| A. | Public |
| B. | Private |
| C. | Community |
| D. | Hybrid |
| Answer» B. Private | |
| 776. |
“Semantics-aware” signatures automatically generated by Nemean are based on traffic at which two layers? |
| A. | Application layer and Transport layer |
| B. | Network layer and Application layer |
| C. | Session layer and Transport layer |
| D. | Application layer and Session layer |
| Answer» E. | |
| 777. |
IDS follows a two-step process consisting of a passive component and an active component. Which of the following is part of the active component? |
| A. | Inspection of password files to detect inadvisable passwords |
| B. | Mechanisms put in place to reenact known methods of attack and record system responses |
| C. | Inspection of system to detect policy violations |
| D. | Inspection of configuration files to detect inadvisable settings |
| Answer» C. Inspection of system to detect policy violations | |
| 778. |
One of the most obvious places to put an IDS sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in relation to the firewall is the most productive placement? |
| A. | Inside the firewall |
| B. | Outside the firewall |
| C. | Both inside and outside the firewall |
| D. | Neither inside the firewall nor outside the firewall. |
| Answer» B. Outside the firewall | |
| 779. |
A false positive can be defined as ________ |
| A. | An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legitimate network traffic or behavior |
| B. | An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on the network |
| C. | The lack of an alert for nefarious activity |
| D. | Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legitimate network traffic or behavior and An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on the network |
| Answer» E. | |
| 780. |
The selected clusters in a clustering sampling are known as ________ |
| A. | elementary units |
| B. | primary units |
| C. | secondary units |
| D. | proportional units |
| Answer» B. primary units | |
| 781. |
A sample size is considered large in which of the following cases? |
| A. | n > or = 30 |
| B. | n > or = 50 |
| C. | n < or = 30 |
| D. | n < or = 50 |
| Answer» B. n > or = 50 | |
| 782. |
Which of the following is classified as unknown or exact value that represents the whole population? |
| A. | predictor |
| B. | guider |
| C. | parameter |
| D. | estimator |
| Answer» D. estimator | |
| 783. |
The cluster sampling, stratified sampling or systematic samplings are types of ________ |
| A. | direct sampling |
| B. | indirect sampling |
| C. | random sampling |
| D. | non random sampling |
| Answer» D. non random sampling | |
| 784. |
If the distribution of sample and population changes then the mean of Sampling distribution must be equal to ________ |
| A. | standard deviation of population |
| B. | variance of population |
| C. | sample of population |
| D. | mean of population |
| Answer» E. | |
| 785. |
In sampling distribution what does the parameter k represents ________ |
| A. | Sub stage interval |
| B. | Secondary interval |
| C. | Multi stage interval |
| D. | Sampling interval |
| Answer» E. | |
| 786. |
If the standard deviation of a population is 50 and the sample size is 16 then the standard deviation of the sampling distribution is ________ |
| A. | 11.25 |
| B. | 12.25 |
| C. | 13.25 |
| D. | 14.25 |
| Answer» C. 13.25 | |
| 787. |
The method of selecting a desirable portion from a population which describes the characteristics of whole population is called as ________ |
| A. | sampling |
| B. | segregating |
| C. | dividing |
| D. | implanting |
| Answer» B. segregating | |
| 788. |
In systematic sampling, population is 240 and selected sample size is 60 then sampling interval is ________ |
| A. | 240 |
| B. | 60 |
| C. | 4 |
| D. | 0.25 |
| Answer» D. 0.25 | |
| 789. |
If the mean of population is 29 then the mean of sampling distribution is __________ |
| A. | 29 |
| B. | 30 |
| C. | 21 |
| D. | 31 |
| Answer» B. 30 | |
| 790. |
A radio link has 15 W transmitter connected to an antenna of 2.5 m2 effective aperture at 5 GHz. The receiving antenna has an effective aperture of 0.5 m2 and is located at a 15 Km line of sight distance from transmitting antenna. Assuming lossless, matched antennas, the power delivered to the receiver is: |
| A. | 20 µW |
| B. | 15 µm |
| C. | 23 µm |
| D. | 25 µm |
| Answer» D. 25 µm | |
| 791. |
The directivity of an antenna in terms of the aperture efficiency and operating wavelength is given by: |
| A. | 4πAe/λ2 |
| B. | 2πAe/λ2 |
| C. | πAe/λ2 |
| D. | None of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. 2πAe/λ2 | |
| 792. |
Effective aperture in terms of beam area and operating wavelength is given by the relation:a) λ2/ ΩAb) ΩA / λ2c) λ2× ΩAd) No such relationship exists 8.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident electric field. |
| A. | λ2/ ΩAb) ΩA / λ2c) λ2× ΩAd) No such relationship exists 8.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident electric field.a) Effective height |
| B. | ΩA / λ2c) λ2× ΩAd) No such relationship exists 8.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident electric field.a) Effective heightb) Gain |
| C. | λ2× ΩAd) No such relationship exists 8.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident electric field.a) Effective heightb) Gainc) Directivity |
| D. | No such relationship exists 8.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident electric field.a) Effective heightb) Gainc) Directivityd) LossView Answer |
| Answer» B. ΩA / λ2c) λ2× ΩAd) No such relationship exists 8.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident electric field.a) Effective heightb) Gain | |
| 793. |
The half power beam width of an antenna in both θ and φ are 400 each. Then the gain of the antenna is: |
| A. | 23 |
| B. | 25 |
| C. | 14 |
| D. | 27 |
| Answer» C. 14 | |
| 794. |
As the beam area of an antenna decreases, the directivity of the antenna: |
| A. | Increases |
| B. | Decreases |
| C. | Remains unchanged |
| D. | Depends on the type of the antenna |
| Answer» B. Decreases | |
| 795. |
The input impedance of the follower stage is ____________ than that of a CG stage. |
| A. | greater |
| B. | lesser |
| C. | equal |
| D. | cannot be compared |
| Answer» B. lesser | |
| 796. |
The output impedance of follower is less than that of a degenerated CS stage. |
| A. | True |
| B. | False |
| Answer» B. False | |
| 797. |
Can the voltage gain of a follower stage be equal to 1? |
| A. | Yes, by increasing the transconductance |
| B. | No |
| C. | Yes, by modifying the bias voltage |
| D. | Yes, by modifying the bias current |
| Answer» C. Yes, by modifying the bias voltage | |
| 798. |
Can the voltage gain of a follower stage be greater than 1? |
| A. | Yes, by changing the transconductance |
| B. | No |
| C. | Yes, by changing the bias current |
| D. | Yes, by changing the supply rail |
| Answer» C. Yes, by changing the bias current | |
| 799. |
If g is the transconductance, r is the resistance due to channel length modulation and if only M3 and M2 has channel length modulation, what is the total voltage gain? |
| A. | R/ g * {(1 + gr)* R + R} || R * R / {(1/g || r) + R |
| B. | R/ (1/g) * g * {(1 + gr)* R + R} || R * {(1/g || r) + R |
| C. | R/ (1/g + R) * g * {(1 + gr)* R + R} || R * R / {(1/g || r) + 3R |
| D. | {(R || 1/g || r) / (1/g + (R || 1/g || r)} * g * [{(1 + gr)* (R || 1/g || r) + (R || 1/g || r)} ||R] * R / {(1/g || r) + R |
| Answer» E. | |
| 800. |
If g is the transconductance, r is the resistance due to channel length modulation and if M2 and M1 has channel length modulation but M3 doesn’t, what is the total voltage gain for only M2? |
| A. | g * {(1 + gr)* (R || 1/g || r) + (R || 1/g || r)} || R |
| B. | g * {(1 + gr)* R + R} || 4R |
| C. | g * {(1 + gr)* R + 3R} || 4R |
| D. | g * {(1 + 2gr)* R + R} || 4R |
| Answer» B. g * {(1 + gr)* R + R} || 4R | |