Explore topic-wise MCQs in Testing Subject.

This section includes 657 Mcqs, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Testing Subject knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Earliest complication of ileostomy is :

A. Obstruction
B. Necrosis
C. Diarrhea
D. Prolapse
Answer» C. Diarrhea
2.

A child is having circumferential burns over both his thighs , buttocks , face and scalp . Calculate the surface area of the burnt area.

A. 27%
B. 10%
C. 37%
D. 45%
Answer» B. 10%
3.

Damage control surgery include

A. Used in triage
B. Surgery avoided to controlled major damage
C. Minor disability rectiied irst then posted for surgery
D. Controlled major hemorrhage than disability
Answer» E.
4.

A child is having few drops of blood with act of defecation. The probable diagnosis is

A. Juvenile rectal polyp
B. Adenomatous Polyposis
C. Rectal ulcer
D. Sx
Answer» B. Adenomatous Polyposis
5.

A guy driving a car fast suddenly slams on the brakes. He was wearing a seat belt. The most likely organ affected is :

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Mesentery
D. Kidney
Answer» D. Kidney
6.

Duncan method of separation of placenta, all are true except:

A. Commonest mode of separation of placenta
B. Maternal surface of placenta presents at vulva
C. Peripheral separation of placenta occurs
D. Blood accumulates between placenta and membranes and escapes through vagina.
Answer» B. Maternal surface of placenta presents at vulva
7.

Which is not included in 3rd stage of labor to prevent PPH?

A. Oxytocin injection with shoulder injury
B. Early cutting with cord clamp
C. Prophylactic Misoprostol
D. Controlled and sustained cord traction
Answer» C. Prophylactic Misoprostol
8.

Female present with single elevated painless ulcer with 3cm on labia majora with everted margins

A. Chlamydia
B. Herpes
C. Papilloma virus
D. Syphilis
Answer» E.
9.

Breathing movements in a fetus lead to all except

A. Increase towards end of term
B. Can lead to RDS
C. Develops the Respiratory Muslces
D. Prevents lung hypoplasia
Answer» B. Can lead to RDS
10.

Maternal blood, fetal blood difference test?

A. APT test
B. Kleihouer-Betka Test
C. Bubblin Test
D. Osmotic of Fragility test
Answer» B. Kleihouer-Betka Test
11.

A female from hilly region, of poor socioeconomic status, coming with amenorrhea, weight loss, low grade fever. no pain abdomen. diagnosis:

A. Pelvic inlammatory disease
B. Urogenital tuberculosis
C. Bacterial cystitis
D. Bacterial vaginitis
Answer» C. Bacterial cystitis
12.

ormone replacement in post menopausal woman is done for all except:

A. Prevent genito-urinary atrophy
B. Cardiovascular protection
C. Prevention against osteoporosis
D. Imprevent of vasomatar symptoms
Answer» C. Prevention against osteoporosis
13.

Most accurate and safest way to diagnose viable pregnancy at 6 weeks:

A. Beta HCG levels
B. pv examination to check uterus size of 6 weeks
C. Trans vaginal scan for fetal cardiac activity
D. Doppler for fetal cardiac activity
Answer» C. Trans vaginal scan for fetal cardiac activity
14.

Female with normal pubic and axiillary hair, with primary amenorrhea. Diagnosis:

A. Androgen insensitvity syndrome
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. 47XYY
D. 45XO
Answer» C. 47XYY
15.

A woman after normal labour suddenly goes into shock. Diagnosis:

A. PPH
B. inversion of uterus
C. Amniotic luid embolism
D. Eclampsia
Answer» C. Amniotic luid embolism
16.

A girl with short stature widely spaced nipples and primary amennorhea. Karyotype

A. 47XXX
B. 47XYY
C. 45XO
D. 46XX
Answer» D. 46XX
17.

Correct match of drug and action is :

A. Brimonidine decrease aqueous production
B. Latanoprost carbonic anhydrase inhbtor
C. Pilocarpine increases uvoescleralpoutlow
D. Betaxolol increases trabecular outlow
Answer» B. Latanoprost carbonic anhydrase inhbtor
18.

OCREOPLASMIN is a recombinant protease & it is used to treat

A. Retinal break
B. Diabetic mellitus macular edema
C. Uveovitrealmembranbe adhesion
D. Submacular bleeding
Answer» D. Submacular bleeding
19.

Most common Non hogdkin lymphoma of orbit is

A. B cell
B. T cell
C. NK Cell
D. Plasma cell
Answer» B. T cell
20.

In which of the following calciication is not seen

A. Retinoblastoma
B. Primary hyperplastic persistent vitreous
C. Choroid osteoma
D. Optic nerve drusenz
Answer» C. Choroid osteoma
21.

Chalzion histopathology?

A. Lipogranulomatous degeneration
B. Xantho granuloma
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Suppurative
Answer» B. Xantho granuloma
22.

Myopics and retinal degeneration true is?

A. Hypermyopia
B. Myopia < 6D
C. Teen & elder patient
D. Hyperopia
Answer» C. Teen & elder patient
23.

A patient presented with corneal ulcer which later showed a perforation. On gram staining a gram negative coccoid oxidase positive

A. Moraxella
B. Neisseria
C. Streptococcua Pyogenes
D. Chaylamydia
Answer» C. Streptococcua Pyogenes
24.

Sudden loss of vision in a 65 year old diabetes mellitus man, which was preceded by blurring of vision. the main investigation to be done is :

A. Homocystiene
B. ACE level
C. Creatinine
D. Gold
Answer» B. ACE level
25.

Most cancer in women exhibiting metastasis to eyes:

A. Ovarian cancer
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Cervical cancer
D. Breast cancer
Answer» E.
26.

Rhegmatogenous RD is not seen with:

A. Pseudophakia
B. Hyperopia
C. Lattice degeneration
D. Trauma
Answer» C. Lattice degeneration
27.

Salt n pepper retinopathy is not seen with:

A. Phenothiazine toxicity
B. Congenital rubella
C. Old retinal detachment
D. Fundus lavimaculatus
Answer» E.
28.

Most common presentation of retinoblastoma:

A. Leucokoria with pseudohypopyon
B. Leucokoria with hyphema
C. Leucokoria with heterochromiairidis
D. Leucokoria with strabismus
Answer» E.
29.

False about acute conjunctivitis:

A. Vision not affected
B. Cornea iniltrates
C. Pupil remains unaffected
D. Topical antibiotics is the treatment
Answer» C. Pupil remains unaffected
30.

A75 years old diabetic male patientpresent with ear discharge. On examination there was granulation tissue at external auditory canal with facial nerve palsy and dizziness. Diagnosis is

A. Malignant otitis external
B. Otitis Externa Hemorrhagica
C. Diffuse otitis externe
D. Ototmycosis
Answer» B. Otitis Externa Hemorrhagica
31.

Which of the following nerve injury leads to loss of lacrimal gland secretion

A. Greater petrosal nerve
B. Lesser petrosal nerve
C. Nasociliary nerve
D. Supraorbital nerve?
Answer» B. Lesser petrosal nerve
32.

Patient presents with 4×5 cm lymph node ,mobile irm , not ixed in left lateral neck. Clinical examination and PET scan cannot identify primary. Examination of nose oral cavity and pharynx is normal What is the stage?

A. T0N2Mx
B. T1 N2aM0
C. T0N2aMx
D. T1N2aMx
Answer» E.
33.

50 year old male Unilateral SOM B type tympanogram intact TM.... MANAGEMENT?

A. Myringotomy with grommet insertion
B. Endoscopy of nesophyrax
C. Examination under microscope
D. Adenoidectomy and grommet insertion
Answer» B. Endoscopy of nesophyrax
34.

A 55 yr man presented with CHL, fullness sensation in ear , no discharge, T.M. Normal, Tympanometry shows B type graph. What is the Next Step of management

A. Myringotomy with grommet
B. Evaluation of Nasopharyngeal Mass
C. Antibiotics
D. Observation
Answer» C. Antibiotics
35.

A patient with h/o right ear discharge undergoes mastoidectomy but his symptoms r not relieved nd he presents with purulent discharge, vertigo nd deafness.. diagnosis:

A. Labyrinthitis.
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Meningitis
D. Petrositis
Answer» B. Thrombophlebitis
36.

Facial recess not surrounded by-

A. Short proces f incus
B. Chorda tympani
C. Facial nerve
D. Stapedius tendon
Answer» E.
37.

BAHA is used for which of these

A. Cochlear malformation
B. SNHL
C. Bl acoustic neuroma
D. Boy with microtionea and auditory canal atresia
Answer» E.
38.

Dose of vitamin A given to post partum woman

A. 50000 IU
B. 1 lakh IU
C. 2 lakh IU
D. 3 lakh IU
Answer» D. 3 lakh IU
39.

Due to use of preservative for refrigerated foods following cancer can be reduced

A. Stomach Cancer
B. Esophagus Cancer
C. Colon Cancer
D. Oropharyngeal Cancer
Answer» B. Esophagus Cancer
40.

Which is false regarding period of communicability?

A. Measles 1-2 days before to 3 days after rash
B. Chickenpox 1-2 days before to 4-5 days after rash
C. Mumps 4-6 days before to 1 week after rash
D. German measles 7 days before and after rash
Answer» B. Chickenpox 1-2 days before to 4-5 days after rash
41.

If conidence limit is increased, then

A. Previously insigniicant data becomes signiicant
B. Previously signiicant data becomes insigniicant
C. No effect on signiicance
D. Any change can happen
Answer» C. No effect on signiicance
42.

Most common operation done by an Ophthalmologist in district hospital

A. Phacoemulsiication
B. Trabeculectomy
C. Bilateral lamellar tarsal rotation
D. Dacrocystorhinostomy
Answer» B. Trabeculectomy
43.

In a population of 100 prevalence of candida glabrata was found to be 80%. If the investigator has to repeat the prevalence with 95% conidence what will the prevalence be?

A. 78-82%
B. 76-84%
C. 72-88%
D. 74-86%
Answer» D. 74-86%
44.

Maximum tolerated dose of a new drug is evaluated in

A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
Answer» B. Phase 2
45.

Type of Growth Charts used by Anganwadi workers (ICDS) for growth monitoring

A. NCHS
B. IAP
C. MRGS
D. CDC
Answer» D. CDC
46.

If Blindness is surveyed using Schools as compared to Population Surveys, then estimation of prevalence of blindness will have?

A. Overestimation
B. Underestimation
C. Remains same
D. None of them is used for evaluation
Answer» C. Remains same
47.

WHO criteria for High endemicity for Meningococcal disease include

A. 0.1%
B. 0.01%
C. 0.001%
D. 1.0%
Answer» C. 0.001%
48.

Vaccine for meningococcal meningitis should be routinely given to

A. Laboratory workers
B. Young adolescents
C. 4-8 years old children
D. Elderly population
Answer» C. 4-8 years old children
49.

Ridley Jopling Leprosy classiication is a type of

A. Clinical, bacteriological, Immunological, epidemiological classiication
B. Clinical, bacteriological, Immunological, therapeutic classiication
C. Clinical, bacteriological, Immunological, histological classiication
D. Operational classiication
Answer» D. Operational classiication
50.

National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS), true is

A. Separate centre for stroke, DM, cancer
B. Implementation in some 5 states over 10 districts
C. District hospital has specialised facilities
D. Subcentre has facility for diagnosis and treatment
Answer» D. Subcentre has facility for diagnosis and treatment