MCQOPTIONS
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| 1. |
Let f(x + y) = f(x)f(y) and f(x) = 1 + xg(x)φ(x), where \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\rm{x}} \to 0} {\rm{g}}\left( {\rm{x}} \right) = {\rm{a}}\) and \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\rm{x}} \to 0} \phi \left( {\rm{x}} \right) = {\rm{b}}\) then what is f’(x) equal to? |
| A. | 1 + abf(x) |
| B. | 1 + ab |
| C. | ab |
| D. | abf(x) |
| Answer» E. | |